I have been noticing a trend. The freepers use the word allegedly to negate a crime. Not only is the perpetrator 'allegedly,' but by use and implication the crime did not exist either. So it appears that allegedly can not only be used to negate or weaken a statement of criminal proof, but it can be used to negate the existence of the crime without directly saying so. I wonder if this was a common use before Bush allegedly became our president.
But 'allegedly' does go hand in hand with 'innocent until proven guilty'. Now, if they're using it in a context to describe a crime for which someone has already been convicted, then that's wrong.
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