what the truth is from a newspaper article - but what I think is that the judge has a point that “Drunken consent is still consent.” But THAT is assuming she gave consent. I think it sounds like she DID NOT give consent at all. And that is what the problem is.
From a quote in the article - it certainly sounds like a rape taking place - where she may have vaguely become semi-conscious in the middle of it.
The fact that she at one point said:
(In her statement to police) “I feel I am to blame because I got so drunk I could not remember the events.”
I don't think has anything to do with anything. A lot of women blame themselves initially (or even later) for this or that. That doesn't mean it isn't a rape - if the facts are that the man started having sex with a woman who was passed out drunk outside her apartment.
It is clearly to people's advantage to be clear about what happened - but that doesn't mean that people always will. The being drugged scenario. The predator who spikes the drinks scenario. You could have people passed out in a hospital. All kinds of things. If judges are to going to claim that “Drunken consent is still consent” - they should be clear that they are talking about drunken people who REALLY ARE consenting - not those who are being raped because they are drunk.
We do have a lot of people who don't understand that distinction. I think it is an important one to be made. If more people understood it - we would (hopefully) have a lot fewer rapes.
The article:
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/article/0,,2-1888035_1,00.htmlFrom a related article:
Rapes soar as convictions plummet to a record low"It is the fall in the conviction rate to 5.6 per cent which will cause most disappointment to the Government, Crown Prosecution Service (CPS) and police....
The Home Office report said that it had found “a group of predatory men who target women when they are drunk, so drunk in a number of cases that their capacity to consent had to be impaired”.
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/article/0,,2-1499525,00.html