If adjusted for inflation it would be over $3k.
And I'm well aware of what the Second Amendment is for. Because I'm familiar with the history behind it. And it has no relevance to the modern world. "A well-regulated militia." Where does that come from? Answering this question and giving it an appropriate historical context requires knowledge not only of the history of the American colonies in the 18th century and in the period of the war for independence, but of British, and specifically Scottish and English, history for several hundred years before. In medieval England, the king required his subjects to maintain arms and train themselves in their use. The medieval "militia" was the yeoman with his longbow. Standing armies were impractical, and the social organisation of the kingdom and the power of the earls and barons meant that they would have distrusted any king who attempted to raise a standing army. A "militia" of trained archers owing allegiance to their local lord, who in turn owed his to an earl who owed his to the king, was another matter. These are the men who won at Crecy, and Agincourt, who made English archery feared throughout Europe. But: the requirement to keep arms was limited to certain classes of subjects; yeomen (small freeholders) and men at arms (knights, who were the gentry and nobility).
Moving forward a few hundred years: this medieval system had, by the sixteenth and seventeenth centuris, developed into the militia; able-bodied men of certain social classes obliged to train at arms and give service in keeping the peace and suppressing insurrection. Due to lack of training the militias were next to useless and saw little employment in the English Civil War (with few exceptions, most notably the Honourable Artillery Company of London). This militia system naturally spread to North America in the sevententh century with British colonisation; at the same time, in the later Jacobean/early Hanoverian era, in Britain, the Scottish militia was suppressed, and the Scots disarmed following Jacobite risings. What do we have as a historical context then? A distrust of standing armies as representative of an excessively powerful central government, coming from both English and Scottish experience in the decades and centuries prior to the drafting of the Second Amendment; the guarantee of militias was a guarantee not to the people as citizens but to the states as political entities under federal government. And the need for an armed and trained populace was more immediate in an era when frontier lawlessness was not uncommon (see for instance the Carolina Regulator movement), when hostile native tribes presented a real threat to small and dispersed settlements, when the United States was a fledgling country sharing a continent with outposts of three great European powers.
Whatever historical justification and basis for the Second Amendment there was 220 years ago is no longer relevant to the modern world; the USA has a standing army, and the role of the militia has been supplanted by the reserves and National Guard.
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