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AverageJoe90

(10,745 posts)
31. .....
Thu Jan 17, 2013, 12:40 AM
Jan 2013
What is said is that the 2nd was revised so that slave owners could not be stopped from mistreating slaves.


And even that's a stretch. Yes, it can be said that some slave owners may have used the 2A as an excuse for putting down slave strikes, but in all honesty, there's really nothing plausible, in the proper context, that suggests that it was part of the Founders' intent.

With that said, though, you are actually quite correct on this: Working-class white people, too, did indeed suffer wage depression, Southerners above all, and that the cycle has continued to the present day, just with peasants in Chinese, Latin American, etc. factories instead of African-Americans on plantations, as the slaves of the modern era.
Sheesh - how many times is this going to be posted? SO WHAT!? jmg257 Jan 2013 #1
Thank you. Vattel Jan 2013 #6
Your Nation's History is Nonsense? Ichingcarpenter Jan 2013 #8
ditto... noiretextatique Jan 2013 #10
The suggestion that the rationale for the second amendment Vattel Jan 2013 #18
You can't handle the tuth. baldguy Jan 2013 #29
Yes, it doesn't really matter why it was ratified in the first place. nt Honeycombe8 Jan 2013 #26
K&R&bookmarked -- I can't believe this doesn't have more recs yet. nt eppur_se_muova Jan 2013 #2
K and R for the gungeon Kingofalldems Jan 2013 #3
And the First Amendment guaranteed pro-slavery screeds could be published, so... nt Romulox Jan 2013 #4
And this was used as legalized violence Ichingcarpenter Jan 2013 #7
Our country was FOUNDED on a violent revolution. So yes, the First Amendment is included Romulox Jan 2013 #9
I can't help but notice that only one side is armed. Nuclear Unicorn Jan 2013 #14
Interesting piece, thanks for posting it. freshwest Jan 2013 #5
Thank you for this. thucythucy Jan 2013 #11
It certainly explains a lot of things AnnieBW Jan 2013 #12
If millions of slaves had been armed, would they have remained slaves? Nuclear Unicorn Jan 2013 #13
There were some good points here, BUT...... AverageJoe90 Jan 2013 #15
This message was self-deleted by its author HangOnKids Jan 2013 #21
Only to protect slavery? No one is saying that RobertEarl Jan 2013 #24
I missed that part...how did 'state' vs 'country' make a diff for what jmg257 Jan 2013 #25
It was part of the 13 colony morph into the US RobertEarl Jan 2013 #28
..... AverageJoe90 Jan 2013 #31
The words "free state" actually meant free country - in context. mzmolly Jan 2013 #16
Same supreme Court that justified Dred Scott Ichingcarpenter Jan 2013 #19
Sad mzmolly Jan 2013 #22
Indeed, the Supreme Court has never been immune from corrupt partisanism. AverageJoe90 Jan 2013 #32
I had never heard this before, but I'm not about to write it off completely like some people... joeybee12 Jan 2013 #17
Thom Hartmann reported on this a few weeks ago. Ilsa Jan 2013 #20
Thanks...I assumed the link was to Thom Hartmann... joeybee12 Jan 2013 #23
Today, ask yourself... backscatter712 Jan 2013 #27
+100 lunasun Jan 2013 #30
So many historical errors. legaleagle_45 Jan 2013 #33
Damned lies. At some point gross inaccuracies become lies. NYC_SKP Sep 2013 #34
Latest Discussions»General Discussion»The Second Amendment was ...»Reply #31