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Response to uppityperson (Reply #22)

Mon Aug 5, 2013, 07:24 PM

33. I think the technical definition

Is that it has to be contact with the purposes of sexual gratification. Orgasm, regardless of sex of offender, is not necessary. I know that this was the definition in some jurisdiction.

In fact, I just answered my own question, from the Nation Center for Victims of Crime:
Sexual assault takes many forms including attacks such as rape or attempted rape, as well as any unwanted sexual contact or threats. Usually a sexual assault occurs when someone touches any part of another person's body in a sexual way, even through clothes, without that person's consent


So, at least according to Wikipedia, the difference between assault and sexual assault isn't the place being touched, but the motives of the offender.

However, none of that was my original point. My original point was that it's wrong regardless of how one defines it, but the act in and of itself does not necessarily mean that it's an overtly sexual one. Those cops in Dallas who "searched" those two women? Fucking rapists who need to think quietly for a while, say ten years in a lovely Texas penitentiary. The search they give recently arrived prisoners in jail? Also assault, also wrong, and definitely immoral, but probably (hopefully) not rape.

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ZombieHorde Aug 2013 OP
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LineLineLineReply I think the technical definition
Nevernose Aug 2013 #33
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