There is already a market for these assets...the banks are using TARP money to swoop in and bid them up slightly.
No, they're
BUYING them. If they offered more than the bid, so be it. The sellers will likely be happy to get more than that previous bid price.
They are doing this under the assumption that they will be able to sell them (to the same hedge funds currently bidding on them @ $.30 on the dollar) for close to face value.
What proof do you have for this claim? Neither Mr. Carney nor Mr. DeCambre in his Post article suggested such a thing, although Mr. Carney did say they "
may already be leading banks to load up on securities they plan to sell at inflated prices." But that is speculation on his part, pure and simple. The seller of a bond can in no way inflate the price beyond what a buyer is willing to pay, any more than you can inflate the price of a car you are trying to sell higher than the market will bear. Keeping that in mind, one has to ask how is it POSSIBLY a bad thing if they can buy a security for $300.00 and sell it for nearly $1000.00? It is pure speculation on your part to suggest they "are doing this under the assumption" of selling them at all instead of hold them to maturity, much less sell them "to the same Hedge Funds bidding on them @ $.30 on the dollar". Are you defending the poor Hedge Funds here? Be still my heart.
This scheme offers almost no downside risk to the banks, since they know the market for these securities exists at close to the prices they are paying.
Perhaps. It's also possible that the value of them could fall further. Or, their value could climb as they approach maturity and/or if the prospects of defaults declines. If the latter is the case it will improve the balance sheets of the banks, making them MORE solvent and able to lend. But that does not answer the underlying question raised by your statement. If Bank of America buys bonds priced at 30.00 and turns around and sells them at or around the same price (presumably to a "Hedge Fund"), how much do you suspect they stand to make on such a deal? Do you think they'll make that 22% figure? Because they won't. That 22% is
yield to maturity and in order to realize it, they have to hold them until they're redeemed.
I think "freeing up that segment of the market" is a grossly inaccurate depiction of this activity.
You're most certainly entitled to your opinion.
The big banks are essentially colluding to use their preferred "too big to fail" status in the PPIP to interfere with smaller firms' acquisition strategies.
What smaller firms and what "acquisition strategies"? These bonds have been available for sale by their owners at varying quantities since this crisis began. I can not see how you made the jump equating two banks buying bonds selling for 30% of par to making them somehow "interfere with smaller firms acquisition strategies"
If you feel this is a more valid use of TARP funds than lending, and if you think this is in keeping with the spirit of the PPIP, then make that case
I am not going to make a judgment whether or not this action is "keeping with the spirit" of anything, but it is apparently,
entirely the point. If it improves their cash flow then it's a good thing. If it increases liquidity in this segment of the MBS market it's a good thing. If it makes money for two banks mired in red ink then.....
rather than attacking the reporter or insulting me.
If you're insulted merely because I asked you if you understood what you read and posted, then you are incredibly thin skinned. If you feel I have attacked the reporter merely because I quoted a bio page linked on the page you put up in your OP, too fucking bad. Based on that bio page, I wouldn't cross the street to piss on Mr Carney if he was on fire.