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I'm talking about 2001, less than eight years ago, not during the Cold War. I'm talking about when Boy George was installed in the White House and when the Republicans also had control of Congress. By 2001, the Taliban had effective control of most of Afghanistan and had already demonstrated appalling attitudes towards human rights--not that right-wingers ever chose to pay much attention. But the Taliban said that they were going to outlaw opium poppy production, and the George W. Bush administration said that they were willing to SUBSIDIZE the Taliban government for doing so. (REMEMBER, THE USSR HAD BEEN DEAD AND GONE FOR OVER A DECADE BY THEN).
I believe that there was a congressional appropriation to fund that subsidy. In 2001.
HOW did John McCain vote IN 2001 to subsidize the Taliban?
THAT'S what I'D like to know.
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