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The thing that has struck me the most about prior investigators/authors, who propose various candidates for the real Shakespeare, is that they don't understand the core quality of a writer who uses language the way Shakespeare does, and that is the quality of being a "fly on the wall." In order to use language the way Shakespeare does, he (or she) had to SHUT THE FUCK UP and LISTEN TO OTHER PEOPLE--all the time, like a sponge. He (or she) was the wallflower in the corner of the pub, LISTENING to the English language BEING BORN.
So notions that Shakespeare had to have been more flamboyant (i.e., like Christopher Marlow), or better known in royal circles (i.e., higher born and more sociable--several candidates), or--and this one baffles me--was MANY people (all sorts of high-born, flamboyant people writing various plays)--are based on a very faulty presumption, that Shakespeare could not have been born a genius of a particular type--a genius of language, that is, a LISTENER--and was damned lucky to have been born, a) when the English language was being born, and b) when the London stage was being born, as the outlet for his genius.
He was nothing. He was nobody. He was an EAR. He was a SPONGE. He was a "fly on the wall." He HEARD it all--a language as yet without dictionaries, created by the COMMON PEOPLE, in the streets, who were just then melding together the odd elements of which the English language is composed: Ancient Anglo-Saxon, Middle English, Danish, German, dollops of French, Latin book-learning and various strains of Keltic lyricism and storytelling, plus new literacy in the middle class and book availability (he clearly consulted books for some of his basic storylines). As a "fly on the wall"--the particular genius needed to ABSORB this extraordinary moment in the history of language, and turn it into something--he eludes the chroniclers of "great people" who typically get their autobiographies written into history. And only after he had BECOME the best playwright of his age (and perhaps the greatest writer who ever lived) did he concern himself with his legacy, and, for instance, applied for a "coat of arms" for his family (likely to please his father).
This is how I see the Shakespeare "mystery." It is not a mystery. The QUALITY that Shakespeare had to have, to write as he did, was ANONYMITY. He had to have been a man (or woman) who tended to "disappear" in a crowd.
I am VERY FAMILIAR with all of Shakepeare's works, plays and sonnets. This is what I sense about them. Someone who spent his life energy gadding about London society in that era, drinking and fighting, showing off, leaving flamboyant legends about himself, gabbing away--talking all the time (as Londoners did--they were all into the feast of language)--parading in fancy clothes, conquering the world (British Empire being born), etc., etc., could not have written these plays. The person who wrote the plays put all of his energy into LISTENING.
I think it's POSSIBLE that SOMEONE other than the personage known as William Shakespeare wrote them--that is, that the writer of the plays (and sonnets--for they were written by the same person) had a hidden identity, for some reason (i.e., Wm. Shakespeare is a nom de plume), although the OTHER quality of the plays--their genius STAGING--supports his identity as a theatrical player (stage hand, actor, director, producer, writer), very familiar with all aspects of stage production. One of the most interesting aspects of Shakespeare's given biography is that he was NOT a great actor himself--and is only known to have played the ghost in "Hamlet" (a mere voice and/or visage). This enhances my theory--that he did not have the quality of projecting a persona into the world (essential for actors), but was, rather--as I said--a sponge. He ABSORBED personas, and was highly gifted at then re-creating them on paper by means of what they SAY. (His characters are all "what they say"--they create themselves with words.)
My thesis--that Shakespeare was very likely the kind of person who "disappears" in a roomful of people--has points that favor a women, and points that do not. A women of that era may well have required a non de plume--especially as to the theater (where all the actors were men or boys--it was considered a disreputable profession for women). Could a woman have been anonymously participating--hiding her sex? Yeah, it's possible. But, on the other hand, she would have had difficulty being a "fly on the wall" in a pub, for instance, or in the street. Possibly as a Jewish woman (this OP), she had less status, and could mingle more. OR, she dressed like a man, and went out and about, absorbing London language. It is not impossible. And it's also interesting as to the sensibility in the plays, which are famous for revealing ALL VIEWPOINTS--for getting into the skin of women (creating REAL women), of ordinary soldiers, of guards at the gates, of gravekeepers, of servants, of nurses, of messengers, of innkeepers, of witches on the bog, of faeries in the forest, of EVERYBODY. Shakespeare takes NO ONE FOR GRANTED. Everyone has a point a view, motives, and independent lives they are living outside the main plot. This is, indeed, one of the great glories of Shakespeare. Could a woman have seen all of these things in people--and have had perhaps more native empathy with all kinds of people--than a man of that era? It's plausible. And a Jewish woman (member of a race against which there was great bigotry) might also have had life experiences that honed her empathy with all people. And this notion is especially compelling when you think of Shakespeare's truly amazing women characters--who are equal to men in complexity, in depth, and in the revealing poetry of their words. Shakespeare's women are an astonishing creative production, given the times.
Yes, it's possible. But could--or would--a Jewish woman have created Shylock? Shylock is Shakespeare's ONLY failure of empathy--really the only character in Shakespeare that seems designed to make the audience hiss with bigotry. Shakespeare doesn't even do this to his famous black character--Othello--who, although he commits a great crime, is treated as noble and tragic. Shylock is not noble and tragic--he is venal, greedy and vengeful. Shakespeare does what he can to at least give Shylock a point of view, and understandable motives--and great speeches! Shylock is an unforgettable character. But Shakespeare really can't get past his and his audience's bigotry. If Shakespeare was a Jewish woman, perhaps she was a self-hating Jew. Or, perhaps she THOUGHT she was doing her race a good turn by presenting a blackguard, greedy Jew with understandable motives. (Shylock uses society's prejudice against him as justification for his greed.)
Plausible, yes. I'll have to read the arguments and evidence for it. Shylock is rather an impediment (to use a word). Could he have been the creation of a Jewish woman? Maybe. And if my main theory, as to the kind of person that Shakespeare needed to be, to write the plays, is true, perhaps she was enough of a "sponge" to have absorbed that society's viewpoint on Jews, in a way that made her own identity irrelevant. That is, she wasn't a Jew when she wrote "Merchant of Venice." She was just a "sponge."
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