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Related: Culture Forums, Support ForumsIs a wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn a man sufficiently invisible?
I suppose I should check to see in which state this occurred.
ThreeMexicanPopehats Retweeted
Is the wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn the man sufficiently invisible? @Popehat @renato_mariotti
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Is a wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn a man sufficiently invisible? (Original Post)
mahatmakanejeeves
Apr 2019
OP
Did he have a contract that the wizard guaranteed he woud be invisable? If not, buyer beware :)
patricia92243
Apr 2019
#3
And just how are they going to prove that the wizard didn't make the guy invisible? The ...
SWBTATTReg
Apr 2019
#4
DetlefK
(16,423 posts)1. Well, the man paid for a service that the wizard did not deliver.
ProudLib72
(17,984 posts)2. This leads to several follow up questions
1. If the man needed to rob a bank to get money, how did he manage to come up with the $500 to pay the wizard?
2. Where did the man find a wizard who could cast the spell?
3. Did the man not pass any reflective surfaces on the way to rob the bank?
patricia92243
(12,598 posts)3. Did he have a contract that the wizard guaranteed he woud be invisable? If not, buyer beware :)
SWBTATTReg
(22,156 posts)4. And just how are they going to prove that the wizard didn't make the guy invisible? The ...
wizard for all we know could have turned 1/100th of the cells visible to us invisible and of course we couldn't tell the difference. Did the contract include what level of invisibility was to be accomplished?
Crazy. The guy's picture above is enough to make one disappear though...