Attorney General Holder's Challenge to Florida's Voter Purge is a Shot Across the Bow

[girty]

16. The Fourteenth Amendment

Part of Section 2 of the Fourteenth Amendment reads, "But when the right to vote at
any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of
the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial
officers of a State or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to
any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age,
and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for
participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation
therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male
citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of
age in such State." This seems to suggest that a State can deny the privilege of voting to eligible voters, and count those denied because of crime, for representation and direct tax purposes. What possible authority could national government have to affect the privilege of non eligible voters? And what possible jurisdiction could any "inferior" court of the United States have in a case to which a State is party? Article III. Section 2. clause 2.
"In all cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, and
those in which a state shall be party, the supreme Court shall have
original jurisdiction."

Is a national "Voting Rights Act" a regulation of commerce? If not, I think it would not be within the authority of national government.
Sincerely; Girty